Black Spirituality Religion : Prophesies

skrybble7 said:
I agree with you in fact that the Bible is the most corroborated most detailed and reliable source of information in book form that exist. And generally people who choose not to believe it tend to lean heavily on less reliable sources and they require a lower standard for proof of reliability than they do for the Bible. Overlooking the whole time that when it comes to a faith… well… Faith is fundamental.

Anyway, I’m going to try and answer your questions as directly and specifically as I am able. And I’m hoping you will do the same.

You ask: “What did GOD reveal to Jesus?” Then you site Matthew, Mark and Luke, where when John baptized Jesus and the Spirit of the Lord descended in the form of a dove saying: “This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased” as exceptions. You also suggest that there is no explicit reference of the voice being from God. Lol Man, I think you know better than that. Who else might that voice in the cloud have come from? But if you truly don’t know I will site from your own site of Luke. And in your site of Luke it says: Lk:3:22: And the Holy Ghost descended in a bodily shape like a dove upon him, and a voice came from heaven, which said, Thou art my beloved Son; in thee I am well pleased.

See where it says the “Holy Ghost?” Exactly who do you associate the Holy Ghost with if not God?

Anyway my short answer to your question is from Matthew 17: 5 While he yet spake, behold, a bright cloud overshadowed them: and behold a voice out of the cloud, which said, This is my beloved Son, in whom I am well pleased; hear ye him.

This is from the time Peter, James, and John went up to the mountain with Jesus and Jesus was transfigured into glory before their eyes.

Here’s the thing about your question though. You seem to assume that only by word can the arm of the Lord be revealed. If the “arm” of the Lord represents His power than He is abundantly revealed in that God lit Jesus up on that mountain.

Nevertheless, in keeping with the parameters of your question I offer the above as one example.

Also when you talk about the word of God… Jesus “is” the Word of God.
Consider this from the book of John: John1: 1 In the beginning was the Word, and the Word was with God, and the Word was God. 2 The same was in the beginning with God. 3 All things were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made.
14 And the Word was made flesh, and dwelt among us, (and we beheld his glory, the glory as of the only begotten of the Father,) full of grace and truth.

Ok So your last question is how do I justify the first verse of Isaiah 53. The short answer is that I don’t. This is why. By itself it is merely a rhetorical question. By itself, there is not much in the way of context. What is there to justify?

Having answered your questions I return back to mine and ask again. Was Jeremiah ever a sacrifice for the sin of others? And how can you assert that he drowned when the Bible says explicitly that he did not die in that dungeon?

Looking forward to further discourse in these matters.
God bless.
But what did GOD reveal to Jesus?
The problem of relating Jesus to Isaiah 53:1 is GOD after revealing or introducing Jesus to the reader as HIS Son, no longer Speaks in the New Testament. With out GOD Himself depicted as Speaking the reader has no idea as to anything being revealed to Jesus directly from GOD.

1: Who hath believed our report? and to whom is the arm of the LORD revealed?

The arm of the LORD is vengeance to destroy Israel and Judah as a Nation because of our breaking the Covenant and serving other gods. This was never revealed to Jesus because we never see Jesus and GOD conversing face to face or does Jesus ever say, “Thus saith the LORD” or “The LORD said unto me”, nor does any of the Apostles. With out this you (of your own free will and assumption) are replacing GOD with Jesus and Apostles because you are accounting their words as divine over the Word or Breath of GOD, just as you did with John in showing Jesus as the Word of GOD. John never once said, “Thus saith the LORD” or “The LORD said unto me”, John never explains to the reader that his information comes directly from GOD. Thus you have now placed Johns doctrine and belief over this…..

Isa:44:24: Thus saith the LORD, thy redeemer, and he that formed thee from the womb, I am the LORD that maketh all things; that stretcheth forth the heavens alone; that spreadeth abroad the earth by myself;

Notice it says, “Thus saith the LORD”.
When John speaks due to his lack of faith in GOD he voided this entire decree of GOD.

Deu: 18:
16: According to all that thou desiredst of the LORD thy God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying, Let me not hear again the voice of the LORD my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I die not.
17: And the LORD said unto me, They have well spoken that which they have spoken.
18: I will raise them up a Prophet from among their brethren, like unto thee, and will put my words in his mouth; and he shall speak unto them all that I shall command him.
19: And it shall come to pass, that whosoever will not hearken unto my words which he shall speak in my name, I will require it of him.

John did not speak in the Name of GOD. Thus Johns words cannot be used for faith and understanding in and of GOD. John is a Servant of Jesus who desires to replace the GOD of the Old Testament with Jesus, this is Evil to the highest level.

Now, as for the passages that suggest GOD Speaking in the New Testament we have a problem. This passage contradicts the scenery that is presented in the New Testament.

Deut:18:16: According to all that thou desiredst of the LORD thy God in Horeb in the day of the assembly, saying, Let me not hear again the voice of the LORD my God, neither let me see this great fire any more, that I die not.

This means Jesus had to be the only person to see, hear and experience the Voice of GOD as Jesus being of the Children of Israel as stated, he would have also been subject to the agreement made in Deut:18:16. Thus the true situation is Jesus told his followers this story of GOD introducing him as HIS Son after he was baptized. This is the only way one can view those passages without them violating the Word of GOD. Other people outside of Jesus could not have seen, heard or experienced the Voice and Image of GOD.
Ok So your last question is how do I justify the first verse of Isaiah 53. The short answer is that I don’t. This is why. By itself it is merely a rhetorical question. By itself, there is not much in the way of context. What is there to justify?

Jer:11:20: But, O LORD of hosts, that judgest righteously, that triest the reins and the heart, let me see thy vengeance on them: for unto thee have I revealed my cause.

Jer:20:12: But, O LORD of hosts, that triest the righteous, and seest the reins and the heart, let me see thy vengeance on them: for unto thee have I opened my cause.

Jer:46:10: For this is the day of the Lord GOD of hosts, a day of vengeance, that he may avenge him of his adversaries: and the sword shall devour, and it shall be satiate and made drunk with their blood: for the Lord GOD of hosts hath a sacrifice in the north country by the river Euphrates.

GOD revealed to Jeremiah his day of vengeance upon Israel, Judah and Kemet. Thus the prophesy of Isaiah 53:1 was fulfilled. It was Jeremiah that saw the final defeat and conquering, dispersion and enslavement of the people of the Old Testament, us.
Having answered your questions I return back to mine and ask again. Was Jeremiah ever a sacrifice for the sin of others? And how can you assert that he drowned when the Bible says explicitly that he did not die in that dungeon?
Jeremiah was the only witness to his death and resurrection. Once he was in the dungeon alone no one else can tell you what occurred except Jeremiah himself.

Lam:3:53: They have cut off my life in the dungeon, and cast a stone upon me.

Lam:3:58: O Lord, thou hast pleaded the causes of my soul; thou hast redeemed my life.


We are jumping ahead because I wanted to take Isaiah 53 line by line. But this would be the line you are referring to.

Isa:53:10: Yet it pleased the LORD to bruise him; he hath put him to grief: when thou shalt make his soul an offering for sin, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the pleasure of the LORD shall prosper in his hand.

English Bible:

Yet it pleased the Lord to crush him by sickness; if his soul shall consider it a reward for guilt, he shall see his seed, he shall prolong his days, and the purpose of the Lord shall prosper in his hand.

This is a web page that contains the Hebrew Text in which you can cut and paste the actual Hebrew and paste it into a translator.
http://www.mechon-mamre.org/p/pt/pt1053.htm

This is a web page that has a Hebrew to English translator, but you can use any translator you want.
http://milon.morfix.co.il/Default.aspx

Take each Hebrew word and plug it into a translator so that you can began to perceive for yourself the true meaning of the passage.

After you have done this we can talk about what you have found.
 
Continuing Isa 53 analysis:


2: For he shall grow up before him as a tender plant, and as a root out of a dry ground: he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.


Understanding of who it is referring to.

Jer 1:
4: Then the word of the LORD came unto me, saying,
5: Before I formed thee in the belly I knew thee; and before thou camest forth out of the womb I sanctified thee, and I ordained thee a prophet unto the nations.

Notice Jeremiah explains to the reader that the Words are coming directly from GOD. The prophets of the Old Testament were equivalent to what we call today street bums and homeless people. With this appearance the prophets were also loud, boisterous and extremely expressive, just like ministers are today.

Thus this is the mental picture drawn by the description of the person(s) Isaiah is prophesying about. Imagine the people of Israel and Judah going about their everyday life dressed in their finest of clothing going about their everyday business such as going to the market or selling pottery going up and down in the streets of the city. Within this same image you have a Prophet of GOD standing on the street corner or in the city gates yelling, spiting and ministering the Word of GOD. At these times the citizens of the city were not paying the tenth, thus the Prophets became poor or surviving on scraps. Also the prophets didn’t shave or groom themselves. So we have this person (bum) standing in the midst of the city hoping and hollering about the destruction to come and acting out what GOD has informed him to do.

We can see one Prophet depicted as eating cows dung.

Ezek:4:12: And thou shalt eat it as barley cakes, and thou shalt bake it with dung that cometh out of man, in their sight.

Ezek:4:15: Then he said unto me, Lo, I have given thee cow's dung for man's dung, and thou shalt prepare thy bread therewith.

Imagine this bum (Prophet) standing in the midst of the city or in the gates of the city cooking and eating poop. He is unshaven, loud, yelling and spitting at the people while having poop dribbling from his beard.

That is the image prophesied about by Isaiah he hath no form nor comeliness; and when we shall see him, there is no beauty that we should desire him.
More support for this being the demeanor of the Prophet.

2Kgs:9:11: Then Jehu came forth to the servants of his lord: and one said unto him, Is all well? wherefore came this mad fellow to thee? And he said unto them, Ye know the man, and his communication.

The Prophets became considered as mad (crazy) people that no one wanted to deal with.

Jesus did not fit these description in any way.
 
I think I see a clear point of disagreement that may or may not make this discussion moot.
You require a “Thus saith the Lord” qualification in order to believe that the Lord is speaking. I don’t know exactly what your basis is for believing this to be the exclusive indicator that God is speaking.

On the other hand, I believe as it is written in the same book, that Jesus is the Word of God. So if He is the Word of God it stands to reason that each time Jesus speaks, God is in fact speaking. So on the basis of scripture, I know Jesus to be the Word of God.

Given this, I refer back to your question, “What did God reveal to Jesus?”
I would say God revealed to Jesus everything that came out of Jesus mouth throughout the whole New Testament. Every parable, every prophesy, every expounding of the law, every miracle, and surely the crucifixion that He suffered on our behalf just as Isaiah described.

However if the case is that you do not believe in the new testament than there is no point in this particular discussion to deal with the new testament.

Again, I ask exactly what indication was there that Jeremiah died for our sins?
I see that you require absolute strict adherence to the explicit “thus saith the Lord”
In order to believe the Word of God, yet no such standard is applied to this believed death and resurrection of Jeremiah. Nothing that you have sited actually shows he died and was resurrected. Let alone that he died for our sins.
You say that only Jeremiah himself can tell us what happened. I say that he did tell us.
Jeremiah wrote the book Jeremiah. And it explicitly says that he did not die.
You make reference to lamentations and site figurative, poetic speech as an explicit declaration of his death and resurrection. But I’ve shown you were that figure of speech was used elsewhere by others and clearly did not mean what you claim.
Do you believe King David died and was resurrected? Psalms is FULL of that poetic language.
So the focal point of my initiating this discussion with you is to establish weather or not Jeremiah died and what’s more, that he died for our sins. Isaiah does not bare this out.
If you have a figurative statement in Lamentations and a literal statement in Jeremiah(both of which Jeremiah wrote) which carries more weight?

Also I’m sure I’ll find those translation sites very interesting if not very useful.
God bless
 

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